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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 29.06.2025 02:05

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Were Dalits prohibited from drinking water from wells in ancient times? Is there any evidence to support this claim?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.